I'm seeing an implicit sort of argument lately - that the Fort Hood killer was not a terrorist because he acted alone.
Is that a key part of the definition? Do you need a conspiracy to qualify? Is a 2-person conspiracy - like McVeigh and Nichols - enough?
Also, if you're crazy, is that grounds for disqualification? Because I'm betting a lot of suicide bombers have a nutty streak. I'm hoping they get their own DSM entry soon: Explosive Suicidal Ideation.
Whether there's more than one person to blame,
the goals and the means are the same.