Monday, July 07, 2008


I've been thinking about Heidegger's claim that "Nothing Noughts" and I'm wondering if that's a proper translation or if he maybe meant to say that "Muffins are Naughty." I'm not sure how this could be reconciled with the axiom of epistemuffinology.

Did Heidegger, in his haughtiness,
think muffins suffered from naughtiness?

Or was his love of muffins bent,
after dating Hannah Arendt?

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